A Gaussian Counterexample for the Uniform Convergence of Power Series

Suppose that

f(x)=n=0anxn

has an infinite radius of convergence. Moreover, suppose that

limx±f(x)=L<

Do the sequence of functions

fn(x)=k=0nakxk

converge to f(x) uniformly? No. Consider the counterexample:

ex2=n=0(1)nx2nn!

Consider

an={(1)kk!if n=2k0if n=2k+1

Then,

limsup|an|1/n=lim|a2k|1/2k=lim1k!1/2k=0

Thus, n=0(1)nx2nn! has infinite radius of convergence. Moreover,

limx±ex2=0

However, if fnf uniformly, then

limsup{|fn(x)f(x)|:xR}=0

But any partial sum will be unbounded on R.

sup{|fn(x)f(x)|:xR}=sup{|k=0n(1)kx2kk!ex2|:xR}=+x

Thus, fn(x) does not converge uniformly to f(x). It turns out that any power series with infinite radius of convergence that converges uniformly must be a polynomial.